1. Which structure is a component of the central nervous system?

(A) photoreceptors in the eye

(B) sensory receptors in the skin

(C) skeletal muscle cells

(D) spinal cord

2. Which division of the human nervous system carries signals to the skeletal muscles?

(A) autonomic

(B) parasympathetic

(C) sensory

(D) somatic

3. Which is caused by the destruction of the myelin sheath?

(A) Alzheimers

(B) Down Syndrome

(C) Multiple Sclerosis

(D) Parkinsons

4. What is the functional unit of the nervous system?

(A) axon

(B) dendrite

(C) neuron

(D) synapse

5. Which gland is a part of the endocrine system?

(A) adrenal

(B) mammary

(C) salivary

(D) sebaceous

6. Which is the main function of the vestibule and semicircular canals?

(A) air pressure

(B) balance

(C) fluid pressure

(D) hearing

7. Who was responsible for the discovery of insulin?

(A) Avery and McCleod

(B) Banting and Best

(C) Levene and Miller

(D) Watson and Crick

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 2 of 14

8. Which term is used for near-sightedness?

(A) astigmatism

(B) glaucoma

(C) hyperopia

(D) myopia

9. What is the sequence in the reflex arc?

(A) effector, motor neuron, sensory neuron, receptor

(B) motor neuron, effector, receptor, sensory neuron

(C) receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector

(D) sensory neuron, receptor, effector, motor neuron

10. Which sequence of events describes the transmission of a nerve impulse?

(A) depolarization of the cell membrane, sodium ions enter cell, repolarization of cell

membrane, potassium ions leave cell

(B) potassium ions leave cell, depolarization of cell membrane, sodium ions enter

cell, repolarization of membrane

(C) repolarization of cell membrane, potassium ions leave cell, depolarization of the

cell membrane, sodium ions enter cell

(D) sodium ions enter cell, depolarization of cell membrane, potassium ions leave

cell, repolarization of cell membrane

11. What would cause a mature adult to be three feet tall?

(A) excess HGH

(B) excess thyroxine

(C) insufficient HGH

(D) insufficient thyroxine

12. Which vision disorder can be corrected by surgically replacing a cloudy lens?

(A) astigmatism

(B) cataracts

(C) glaucoma

(D) hyperopia

13. Dinitrophenol (DNP) is a chemical that interferes with the ability of the cell to synthesize

ATP. What most likely happens to a neuron that is treated with DNP?

(A) increased activity of the sodium membrane

(B) increased transport of negatively charged ions

(C) unable to depolarize the neural membrane

(D) unable to repolarize the neural membrane

14. Which gland is affected by a dramatic increase in blood sugar levels?

(A) pancreas

(B) parathyroid

(C) pineal

(D) pituitary

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 3 of 14

15. Why would cholinesterase inhibitors be given to individuals experiencing personality

changes such as memory loss and aggression?

(A) They stimulate acetylcholine levels.

(B) They suppress acetylcholine levels.

(C) They stimulate serotonin levels.

(D) They suppress serotonin levels.

withdrawn before the pain is sensed. Describe three neurological reasons why a

person may be unable to withdraw the hand immediately.

to a normal adult who is short in stature.

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 4 of 14

1. Which stage of mitosis is indicated in the diagram below?

(A) anaphase

(B) metaphase

(C) prophase

(D) telophase

2. In which stage of the cell cycle does genetic material replicate?

(A) anaphase

(B) interphase

(C) prophase

(D) telophase

3. What is the male reproductive organ in a flower?

(A) sepal

(B) stamen

(C) stigma

(D) style

4. During the menstrual cycle which hormones are elevated during the luteal stage?

(A) estrogen and progesterone

(B) estrogen and follicle stimulating hormone

(C) lutenizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone

(D) lutenizing hormone and estrogen.

5. What is the function of the vas deferens?

(A) seminal fluid production

(B) sperm storage

(C) sperm passage

(D) testosterone production

6. How can a man become sterile?

(A) blocked epididymis

(B) blocked oviducts

(C) endometriosis

(D) meningitis

7. What risk is associated with using an intrauterine device?

(A) blood clots

(B) hormonal imbalance

(C) pelvic inflammatory disease

(D) urinary tract infection

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 5 of 14

8. Which primary membrane develops into the placenta?

(A) allantois

(B) amnion

(C) chorion

(D) yolk

9. What stage of childbirth results in the removal of the afterbirth?

(A) dilation

(B) expulsion

(C) implantation

(D) placental

10. Which is the correct sequence for the passage of sperm from when it is ejaculated into the

vagina until it fertilizes the egg?

11. Which hormone is controlled through a positive feedback loop?

(A) FSH

(B) oxytocin

(C) progesterone

(D) prolactin

12. Which cell is pluripotent?

(A) egg

(B) nerve

(C) sperm

(D) stem

13. Two individuals in a set of triplets are identical. How could this happen?

(A) Four eggs were fertilized but only three were implanted.

(B) One egg was fertilized and split into three parts.

(C) Three eggs were fertilized and all were implanted.

(D) Two eggs were fertilized, and one split into two parts.

14. Which would be an acceptable approach for treating cancer?

(A) prevent crossing-over

(B) prevent spindle fibre formation during mitosis

(C) promote meiosis

(D) promote the replication of chromosomes

15. If a pig liver cell contains 46 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are found in a pig

sperm cell?

(A) 21

(B) 23

(C) 46

(D) 47

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 6 of 14

16. How would the genetic material of daughter cells compare to its parents if interphase did

not take place during the cell cycle?

(A) half

(B) identical

(C) one quarter

(D) twice

17. What would be the best solution for a couple experiencing infertility because the male

has a low sperm count?

(C) surrogate motherhood

(D) tubal ligation

18. The diagram below represents the stages of the developing follicle. What event takes

place during the time period from W and X?

(A) The anterior pituitary secretes decreasing amounts of luteinizing hormone.

(B) The endometrium breaks down.

(C) The hypothalamus shuts off the production of follicle-stimulating hormone.

(D) The uterine lining rebuilds.

19. Which developmental sequence occurs after fertilization?

(A) gastrula, blastula, morula

(B) gastrula, morula, blastula

(C) morula, blastula, gastrula

(D) morula, gastrula, blastula

20. Why do uterine contractions stimulate milk production in mammary glands?

(A) It decreases luteinizing hormone levels.

(B) It decreases oxytocin levels.

(C) It increases luteinizing hormone levels.

(D) It increases oxytocin levels.

date when ovulation would most likely occur if menstruation begins on March 7?

Explain.

sexual reproduction in plants?

who has given birth to triplets.

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 7 of 14

1. Which statement was part of Mendels theory of inheritance?

(A) A dominant trait is expressed when present.

(B) Genetic information is carried by DNA.

(C) Meiosis produces monoploid sex cells.

(D) Sex-linked traits are more common in males than in females.

2. Which term refers to the science of heredity?

(A) breeding

(B) genetics

(C) inheritance

(D) karyotyping

3. What is only found in DNA molecules?

(A) cytosine

(B) phosphate

(C) sugar

(D) thymine

4. Which step of protein synthesis involves interaction between transfer RNA and

messenger RNA?

(A) replication

(B) transcription

(C) translation

(D) translocation

5. What is the effect of gene linkage on variation?

(A) decreased variation in a species

(B) decreased variation in gametes, but increased variation in zygotes

(C) increased variation in a species

(D) increased variation in gametes, but decreased variation in zygotes

6. Which is a photograph of chromosomes?

(A) chromosome map

(B) DNA probe

(C) karyotype

(D) pedigree

7. What type of genetic mutation occurs when a portion of a chromosome breaks off and

attaches to a different chromosome?

(A) deletion

(B) inversion

(C) nondisjunction

(D) translocation

8. Who first described the DNA double helix structure?

(A) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty

(B) Franklin and Wilkins

(C) Sutton and Morgan

(D) Watson and Crick

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 8 of 14

9. Which is a result of polygenic inheritance in humans?

(A) ability to roll the tongue

(B) color of the skin

(C) production of a clone

(D) sex of a child

10. What chromosome mutation causes Down Syndrome?

(A) deletion

(B) duplication

(C) nondisjunction

(D) translocation

11. What genotype must be mated with the organism in a test cross?

(A) heterozygous dominant

(B) heterozygous recessive

(C) homozygous dominant

(D) homozygous recessive

12. What can result from DNA exposure to radiation?

(A) mutation

(B) replication

(C) termination

(D) transformation

13. Which procedure detects a genetic disorder by removing cells from the membranous sac

around the fetus?

(A) CVS

(B) fetoscopy

(C) gene-specific marker

(D) linked marker

14. Which procedure is used after birth to treat a genetic disorder detected at birth?

(A) amniocentisis

(B) gene therapy

(C) genetic counselling

(D) ultrasound

15. Which is an example of a codominant genetic disorder?

(A) muscular dystrophy

(B) phenylketonuria

(C) progeria

(D) sickle cell anemia

16. When a homozygous dominant parent is mated with a recessive parent, what percentage

of the offspring will be hybrids?

(A) 0%

(B) 25%

(C) 50%

(D) 100%

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 9 of 14

17. Three women gave birth to children in the same hospital at the same time. The babies are

mixed up in the nursery. The hospital checked the blood type of the parents and children

and the following data was obtained:

Father Mother

Smiths A B Jane O

Jones AB O Bob B

Olsens A A Joan AB

Who could have produced Baby Bob?

(A) either the Olsens or Jones

(B) either the Smiths or Jones

(C) only the Olsens

(D) only the Smiths

18. If a couple has two boys and a girl, what is the probability that their next child will be a

girl?

(A) 25%

(B) 50%

(C) 67%

(D) 75%

19. If a colour blind man and a woman who is a carrier of colour blindness have a son, what

are the chances that their son will be colour blind?

(A) 25%

(B) 50%

(C) 75%

(D) 100%

20. In cattle, when red phenotypes and white phenotypes cross, the outcome is roan cattle.

What is the phenotypic ratio for the offspring produced from two roan cattle?

(A) all roan

(B) 2 red : 2 white

(C) 3 red :1 white

(D) 1 red : 2 roan: 1 white

21. If the base sequence in a DNA chain is AATCGG, what is the base sequence of the

complementary strand?

(A) TTAGCC

(B) TTGCAA

(C) UUAGCC

(D) UUGCAA

22. Which genetic principle is exhibited when a red flower crossed with a yellow flower

produces an orange flower?

(A) co-dominance

(B) dominance

(C) incomplete dominance

(D) multiple alleles

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 10 of 14

methionine

23. According to the table below, which DNA sequence produces the amino acid strand:

alanine - isoleucine - alanine?

(A) G - C - A - A - U - C - G - C - G

(B) G - C - G - A - U - G - C - G - C

(C) C - G - A - T - A - T - C - G - A

(D) C - G - C - T - A - G - G - C - A

24. If a solution of nucleotides, made from a segment of DNA, contains 33% adenine, what

percentage would be guanine?

(A) 17%

(B) 33%

(C) 34%

(D) 67%

25. Why are dominant mutation rates easier to estimate than recessive mutation rates?

(A) They are always expressed in heterozygotes.

(B) They are never lethal and hence always expressed.

(C) They occur at higher average frequencies.

(D) They result in traits that appear early in development.

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 11 of 14

26. Recently, scientists induced a single diploid cell from an adult sheep (the mother) to

grow into a lamb, named Dolly. How closely are Dolly and her mother related?

(A) They are about as related as a brother and a sister would be.

(B) They are about as related as fraternal twins.

(C) They are completely unrelated.

(D) They are nearly genetically identical.

27. In the pedigree shown below individuals with the solid symbols suffer from an autosomal

genetic disease caused by a recessive allele. What is the probability that child X will have

the disease?

(A) 25%

(B) 50%

(C) 75%

(D) 100%

28. What type of mutation occurred if a DNA sequence is changed from

CGT GAG CAT TAT... to CGT GGA GCA TTA... ?

(A) base deletion

(B) base insertion

(C) nondisjunction

(D) point mutation

from their new born baby to a genetics research company.

supply. Uracil is substituted with another nitrogen base to complete the genetic

code. Describe two ways in which the synthesis of this protein molecule will be

affected by the substitution of nitrogen bases.

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 12 of 14

the gene for curled wings is recessive to its normal allele for straight wings. The

two genes show independent assortment. Males heterozygous for both genes are

mated with females that are heterozygous for the eye colour gene, but homozygous

for the gene for curled wings. What ratio of the offspring should have normal eyes

10 missing, and child B has a point mutation in the gene for a digestive enzyme.

Which childs mutation is most likely to be detrimental? Explain.

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 13 of 14

1. What is meant by the term evolution?

(A) For every new species evolving, an old one vanishes.

(B) Gradual changes in a species can occur through time.

(C) Species normally remain stable for millions of years.

(D) There will be no new species evolving.

2. Why is the excessive use of antibiotics a concern for the medical community?

(A) Antibiotics are very expensive to manufacture.

(B) Humans are developing allergies to some antibiotics.

(C) Some bacteria are evolving resistance to antibiotics.

(D) Viruses are not killed by antibiotics.

3. Which term refers to distantly related species producing descendants that have similar

features?

(A) convergence

(B) isolation

(C) radiation

(D) speciation

4. Which hypothesis states, Eukaryotic cells arose through symbiotic relationships of

prokaryotic cells?

(A) intelligent design

(B) Gaia

(C) spontaneous generation

(D) symbiogenesis

5. What is the major mechanism responsible for the presence of many breeds of dogs?

(A) artificial selection

(B) genetic drift

(C) genetic mutation

(D) natural selection

6. Who proposed the theory of Natural Selection?

(A) Charles Darwin

(B) Gregor Mendel

(C) Lynn Margulis

(D) Thomas Malthus

7. What evidence for evolution is illustrated by the fact that hormones from cows may be

used successfully to treat humans?

(A) anatomy

(B) biogeography

(C) embryology

(D) molecular biology

Biology 3201 Sample Problems June 2004 Page 14 of 14

carbon-14 atoms remain?

(A) 5,730 years

(B) 11,460 years

(C) 17,190 years

(D) 22,920 years

9. Why did the population of black peppered moths increase during the Industrial Revolution?

(A) Light-colored moths incorporated soot into their pigmentation as the trees became

darker.

(B) Light-colored moths were killed by birds.

(C) Natural selection produced new genes in the light-colored moths, causing them to

become the black variety.

(D) Pollution caused mutation of the white variety

10. Which best illustrates geographic isolation?

(A) caribou in Gander and caribou in Grand Falls

(B) fall-mating leopard frogs and spring-mating leopard frogs

(C) moose in Corner Brook and moose in Goose Bay

(D) red squirrel and Arctic hare

11. Who would argue that a child would be strong because the father was a weight lifter?

(A) De Vris

(B) Haldane

(C) Lamarck

(D) Linnaeus

12. Fifty one percent of organisms in a population display the dominant trait. If the population is

in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the estimated frequency of the dominant allele in the

gene pool?

(A) 0.30

(B) 0.49

(C) 0.51

(D) 0.70

flies only mate with curly-winged flies? Explain why or why not.

evolved from organisms in layer c? Explain.

e

d

c

b

a

Unit 1 - Maintaining Dynamic Unit 2 - Reproduction and Development

Equilibrium

Selected Response Selected Response Constructed Response

Item # Answer Level Item # Answer Level Item # Value Level

Unit 3 - Genetic Continuity Unit 4 - Evolution, Change, and

Diversity

Selected Response Constructed Response Selected Response

Item # Answer Level Item # Value Level Item # Answer Level